7 thoughts on “Good question

  1. I’d love to see a source data citation for this. I had some notion of the UK having suffered bad outcomes, but this number is way worse than what I had thought.

  2. There’s more to it than just that. In Britain, a mass murder would be counted as one homicide with four victims, while in the US, it would be four homicides. That goes to the ridiculous extreme of, there are break-ins at four houses on the same night. Yep, one burglary with four victims.

    • ANother factor is that if they find a bullet-riddled body, covered in gang tattoos, dumped in an alley, it’s not counted as a murder unless and until they have a conviction of the perp until then he’s just “deceased,” not murdered. They have a clearance rate of less than 50%. If we counted murders using the same definitions the same for statistical purposes their rate would be MUCH higher, more than 2X.

  3. Now delete the US homicides that are one criminal killing another criminal. You can do the same for the UK. Then compare the homicide rates.

  4. I feel the Peterson Syndrome has not received enough attention lately.
    Ask a gun banner: If gun violence goes down, but total criminal violence goes up, is that a good or bad thing?

  5. I found some statistics from a UK paper. 1.3 million violent crimes in the UK last year, population of 66.44 million. Comes out to 1,956 violent crimes per 100k people. US is at 382 per 100k people, basically 5x as much.

    Official murder rate (intentional homicide) is almost opposite of above, however – 5.3 / 100k people here, 1.2 / 100k people in UK. Since I pulled those statistics (intentional homicide) from Wikiliedia, those numbers may be suspect.

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